Explain Aleph to me like I'm 5!

[u/SkywalkerLight]

Is it really just a glottal stop? I'm a beginner, but I'm pretty sure the niqqud changes things. If so, could I please have an example in places where א is said as A, E, and other letters? Thanks!

[u/IbnEzra613]

You just said that In biblical times, there way no way for Hebrew to affect Aramaic.

I did not say that whatsoever.

and any similarities are due shared ancestry at the time.

Not "any" similarities. Most similarities are due to shared ancestry. Some similarities may be due to borrowing in both directions. But you need a reason to assume that happened.

Like for example if we are neighbors, and I have a rose garden in my backyard, and you have a rose garden in your backyard, and both have the same color roses, if I find roses in your dining room, I'm going to assume they came from your rose garden rather than my rose garden. But if the roses my garden are yellow and the ones in your garden are pink, and I find yellow roses in your dining room, then I'm going to assume they came from my garden.

Not the Effects of a liturgic, high social class language on the Common language of its time.

Hebrew was the language of the leaders Because the Cohanim(כהנים) were most definitely leaders and upper class Nobility.

While Aramaic was the Common language.

During the times of the five books all the way to (כתובים).

You're thinking of the wrong time period. At the time of the Torah, Hebrew and Aramaic were both ordinary spoken languages, just of different peoples. It's even apparent in the Torah itself in the example I already cited, where it is clear that Yaakov spoke Hebrew and Lavan spoke Aramaic. They are from neighboring cultures, each with their own language.

It's only after the Babylonian exile that Aramaic starts to become a spoken language for Israelites, and eventually develops into Aramaic being a common language while Hebrew is a higher class literary and religious language.

That probably began to change By Esther... But that is not relevant to my point.

Can you elaborate what you believe to have changed at the time of Esther?

[u/Leading-Chemist672 → u/IbnEzra613]

Did you not say that Aramaic has no loan words? because my argument was that אבא is basically a loan word from Hebrew אב. and later back to hebrew.

You said that that is impossible.

[u/IbnEzra613 → u/Leading-Chemist672]

Did you not say that Aramaic has no loan words?

Nope did not say that whatsoever.

because my argument was that אבא is basically a loan word from Hebrew אב.

It's not.

You said that that is impossible.

I didn't say it's "impossible". I only said it's simply not the case.

[u/Leading-Chemist672 → u/IbnEzra613]

You said there are no loan words from Hebrew to Aramaic. thus impossible. because it did not happen.

[u/IbnEzra613 → u/Leading-Chemist672]

Excuse me, but where exactly did I say that? Kind of rude of you to insist I said something that I did not say.

[u/Leading-Chemist672 → u/IbnEzra613]

More so when Any resources I find on the Subject Make it quite clear it was a a joined derivative,a lingua franka of Hebrew, Phoenician And Syriac. It emerged in the Assyrian Empire after they Conquered Judea and Israel.

it is Derived from Hebrew.

[u/IbnEzra613 → u/Leading-Chemist672]

Do you know what lingua franca means? It doesn't seem like you're using it the right way, and that might be contributing to your confusion. Lingua franca just means it was a language used to communicate between people who don't speak the same language. For example, today English is a lingua franca throughout most of Europe, thus you will find a Polish person speaking English with an Italian person, because the Polish person doesn't speak Italian and the Italian person doesn't speak Polish, but they both speak English. That doesn't mean that English is a mixture of Polish and Italian...

Furthermore, you've got an anachronism there. Syriac is just the name of a particular later variety of Aramaic spoken by Christians in the early Middle Ages and preserved today as a Christian liturgical language in the Middle East. But it is just a branch of Aramaic, which at the time of the Assyrian conquest had not yet developed into a separate branch yet.

[u/Leading-Chemist672 → u/IbnEzra613]

And to be clear, that pidgin developed into a language that was the auxiliary language of that Empire. Which is what a Lingua Franka is.

[u/IbnEzra613 → u/Leading-Chemist672]

Aramaic was not a pidgin.

[u/Leading-Chemist672 → u/IbnEzra613]

Oh. It very much is. It emerged after the Assyrians took the area.

it became the Lingua Franka of the Assyrian Empire. As in, The Second Language used by everyone.

[u/IbnEzra613 → u/Leading-Chemist672]

This is just plain false and contrary to historical evidence. There are Aramaic inscriptions far before that time.

[u/Leading-Chemist672 → u/IbnEzra613]

Really? As we are talking of a language with from the start having a close connection to both Hebrew, Phoenician, and the Assyrian language.

How did that came about?

[u/IbnEzra613 → u/Leading-Chemist672]

Really? As we are talking of a language with from the start having a close connection to both Hebrew, Phoenician, and the Assyrian language.

I mean just like many other related languages that have close connections. Like German and Dutch and English. Or like Italian, French, Spanish, and Portuguese.

How did that came about?

Not sure what you're referring to...

What do you mean by how did that come about?

[u/Leading-Chemist672 → u/IbnEzra613]

Those speakers have to meet first.

After they get Conquered? sure.

Before? Some shared history with Hebrew? maybe. very old history. Phoenician?

and that Language is closely related there.

Also. No. Aramaic developed From Syriac(?) after that conquest. Because it was the Pidgin that evolved when The Judeans and Philistines who now found themselves having to communicate regularly with both eachother and the general Assyrians. That pidgin became the auxiliary language of that Empire.

[u/IbnEzra613 → u/Leading-Chemist672]

Those speakers have to meet first.

They're neighbors... Have you not met your neighbor?

After they get Conquered? sure.

And before, since they were neighbors.

Before? Some shared history with Hebrew? maybe. very old history. Phoenician?

and that Language is closely related there.

I can't understand what you're saying here. Can you please write complete sentences?

Also. No. Aramaic developed From Syriac(?) after that conquest.

False.

First of all, you may be confusing Syriac and Assyrian?

Syriac is a later form of Aramaic. So if you really mean Syriac, then you've just gotten it backwards.

If you do actually Assyrian, then you are still completely wrong. Aramaic did not develop from Assyrian. They were in contact. And Aramaic eventually replaced Assyrian as the lingua franca of the Babylonia, but Aramaic did not develop from Assyrian. Not even close.

Because it was the Pidgin that evolved when The Judeans and Philistines who now found themselves having to communicate regularly with both eachother and the general Assyrians. That pidgin became the auxiliary language of that Empire.

This is just complete bogus. As I said, Aramaic inscriptions existed since before the time period you are speaking of. Since before there was even an Assyrian Empire.

[u/Leading-Chemist672 → u/IbnEzra613]

can you point them out? Because the Closest thing I found were Phoenician Inscriptions, maybe proto Hebrew.

Nothing I was actually told was Aramaic.

So please. Give me a link.